Chapter 2 Quiz multiple choice - Subjecto.com (2024)

Which of the following elements is necessary for proper conduction of nerve impulses?

A) Fe
B) I
C) P
D) Na

D) Na

The basic structural material of the body consists of ________.

A) carbohydrates
B) lipids
C) proteins
D) nucleic acids

C) proteins

In general, the lipids that we refer to as oils have ________.

A) a high water content
B) long fatty acid chains
C) saturated fatty acids
D) unsaturated fatty acids

D) unsaturated fatty acids

The genetic information is coded in DNA by the ________.

A) regular alteration of sugar and phosphate molecules B) sequence of the nucleotides
C) three-dimensional structure of the double helix
D) arrangement of the histones

B) sequence of the nucleotides

Which of the following does NOT characterize proteins?

A) They may be denatured or coagulated by heat or acidity.
B) They have both functional and structural roles in the body.
C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information.
D) Their function depends on their three-dimensional shape.

C) They appear to be the molecular carriers of coded hereditary information.

The single most abundant protein in the body is ________.

A) DNA
B) hemoglobin
C) collagen
D) glucose

C) collagen

Carbohydrates are stored in the liver and skeletal muscles in the form of ________.

A) glucose
B) triglycerides
C) glycogen
D) cholesterol

C) glycogen

Which of the following does NOT describe enzymes?

A) Some enzymes are purely protein.
B) Some enzymes are protein plus a cofactor.
C) Each enzyme is chemically specific.
D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.

D) Enzymes work by raising the energy of activation.

Which of the following is a general function for a fibrous protein?

A) transport
B) protein management
C) body defense
D) catalysis
E) structural framework

E) structural framework

A chemical reaction in which bonds are broken is usually associated with ________.

A) the release of energy
B) the consumption of energy
C) a synthesis
D) forming a larger molecule

A) the release of energy

Salts are always ________.

A) ionic compounds
B) single covalent compounds
C) double covalent compounds
D) hydrogen bonded

A) ionic compounds

The numbers listed represent the number of electrons in the first, second, and third energy levels, respectively. On this basis, which of the following is an unstable or reactive atom?

A) 2, 8, 8
B) 2, 8
C) 2
D) 2, 8, 1

D) 2, 8, 1

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) When acids and bases are mixed, they react with each other to form water and a salt.
B) The more hydrogen ions in a solution, the more acidic the solution.
C) When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases.
D) The pH of blood is slightly basic.

C) When the hydrogen ion concentration decreases, the hydroxyl ion concentration also decreases.

Which of the following is the major positive ion outside cells?

A) magnesium
B) hydrogen
C) potassium
D) sodium

D) sodium

Which of the following would be regarded as an organic molecule?

A) H2O
B) NaCl
C) NaOH
D) CH4

D) CH4

What is a chain of more than 50 amino acids called?

A) triglyceride
B) polysaccharide
C) protein
D) nucleic acid

C) protein

What structural level is represented by the coiling of the protein chain backbone into an alpha helix?

A) primary structure
B) secondary structure
C) tertiary structure
D) quaternary structure

B) secondary structure

Carbohydrates and proteins are built up from their basic building blocks by the ________.

A) addition of a water molecule between each two units B) addition of a carbon atom between each two units
C) removal of a water molecule between each two units D) removal of a carbon atom between each two units

C) removal of a water molecule between each two units

Which statement about enzymes is FALSE?

A) Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form.
B) Most enzymes can catalyze millions of reactions per minute.
C) Enzymes may use coenzymes derived from vitamins or cofactors from metallic elements.
D) Enzymes may be damaged by high temperature.

A) Enzymes require contact with substrate in order to assume their active form.

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A) Chemical reactions proceed more quickly at higher temperatures.
B) Chemical reactions progress at a faster rate when the reacting particles are present in higher numbers.
C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.
D) Catalysts increase the rate of chemical reactions,

C) Larger particles move faster than smaller ones and thus collide more frequently and more forcefully.

Choose the answer that best describes HCO3-.

A) a bicarbonate ion
B) common in the liver
C) a weak acid
D) a proton donor

A) a bicarbonate ion

Select which reactions will usually be irreversible regarding chemical equilibrium in human bodies.

A) glucose to CO2 and H2O
B) ADP + Pi to make ATP
C)H2O + CO2 to make H2CO3
D) glucose molecules joined to make glycogen

A) glucose to CO2 and H2O

What happens in redox reactions?

A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur
B) the electron acceptor is oxidized
C) the organic substance that loses hydrogen is usually reduced
D) the reaction is uniformly reversible

A) both decomposition and electron exchange occur

Choose the answer that best describes fibrous proteins.

A) rarely exhibit secondary structure
B) are very stable and insoluble in water
C) are usually called enzymes
D) are cellular catalysts

B) are very stable and insoluble in water

Which of the following does NOT describe uses for the ATP molecule?

A) chemical work`
B) mechanical work`
C) transport across membranes`
D) pigment structure ‘

D) pigment structure ‘

Select the most correct statement regarding nucleic acids.

A) Three forms exist: DNA, RNA, and tDNA.
B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.
C) RNA is a long, single-stranded molecule made up of the bases A, T, G, and C.
D) tDNA is considered a "molecular slave" of DNA during protein synthesis.

B) DNA is a long, double-stranded molecule made up of A, T, G, and C bases.

Which of the following is an example of a suspension?

A) cytosol B) salt water C) rubbing alcohol D) blood

D) blood

Select the correct statement about isotopes.

A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their mass number.
B) All the isotopes of an element have the same number of neutrons but differing numbers of electrons.
C) All the isotopes of an element are radioactive.
D) Isotopes occur only in the heavier elements.

A) Isotopes of the same element have the same atomic number but differ in their mass number.

The four elements that make up about 96% of body weight are ________.

A) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, calcium
B) nitrogen, hydrogen, calcium, sodium
C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
D) Sodium, potassium, hydrogen, oxygen

C) carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen

________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.

A) Vitamin K
B) Cortisol
C) Vitamin A
D) Vitamin D

D) Vitamin D

You notice that you cannot read your book through a test tube of patient fluid held against the print, making it so blurred as to be unreadable. There is no precipitant in the bottom of the beaker, though it has been sitting for several days in a rack. What type of liquid is this?

A) solution
B) suspension
C) colloid
D) mixture

C) colloid

Atom X has 17 protons. How many electrons are in its valence shell (outermost energy level)?

A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10

C) 7

A high fever causes an enzyme to lose its three dimensional structure and function. Which bonds are broken when a protein denatures?

A) ionic bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) polar covalent bonds
D) non-polar covalent bonds

B) hydrogen bonds

If atom X has an atomic number of 74 it would have which of the following?

A) 37 protons and 37 neutrons
B) 37 electrons
C) 74 protons
D) 37 protons and 37 electrons

C) 74 protons

What does the formula C6H12O6 mean?

A) There are 6 calcium, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.
B) There are, 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.
C) The molecular weight is 24.
D) The substance is a colloid.

B) There are, 6 carbon, 12 hydrogen, and 6 oxygen atoms.

An atom with 3 electrons in its outermost (valence) shell may have a total of ________ electrons altogether.

A) 3
B) 8
C) 13
D) 17

C) 13

Which of the following is a neutralization reaction?

A) HCl → H+ + Cl-
B) NaOH → Na+ + OH-
C) NH3 + H+ → NH4+2
D) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

D) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O

The chemical symbol O=O means ________.

A) zero equals zero
B) both atoms are bonded and have zero electrons in the outer orbit
C) the atoms are double bonded
D) this is an ionic bond with two shared electrons

C) the atoms are double bonded

What is a dipole?

A) a type of bond
B) a polar molecule
C) a type of reaction
D) an organic molecule

B) a polar molecule

What does CH4 mean?

A) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
B) There are four carbon and four hydrogen atoms.
C) This is an inorganic molecule.
D) This was involved in a redox reaction.

A) There is one carbon and four hydrogen atoms.

Amino acids joining together to make a peptide is a good example of a(n) ________ reaction.

A) synthesis
B) decomposition
C) exchange
D) reversible

A) synthesis

Which of the following is NOT considered a factor in influencing a reaction rate?

A) temperature
B) concentration of reactants
C) particle size
D) time

D) Time

Which property of water is demonstrated when we sweat?

A) high heat capacity
B) high heat of vaporization
C) polar solvent properties
D) reactivity
E) cushioning

B) high heat of vaporization

Sucrose is a ________.

A) monosaccharide
B) disaccharide
C) polysaccharide
D) triglyceride

B) disaccharide

What is the ratio of fatty acids to glycerol in triglycerides (neutral fats)?

A) 1:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 4:1

C) 3:1

In a DNA molecule, the phosphate serves ________.

A) as a code
B) to hold the molecular backbone together
C) to bind the sugars to their bases
D) as nucleotides

B) to hold the molecular backbone together

When frying an egg, the protein albumin denatures and maintains only its ________ structure.

A) quaternary
B) tertiary
C) secondary
D) primary

D) primary

Which of the following is chemically inert (unreactive)?

A) carbon (atomic number 6)
B) neon (atomic number 10)
C) oxygen (atomic number 8)
D) Sodium (atomic number 11)

B) neon (atomic number 10)

An atom with an atomic number of 10 and a mass number of 24 would have ________.

A) 14 electrons
B) 14 neutrons
C) 10 neutrons
D) 24 protons

B) 14 neutrons

When DNA is replicated, it is necessary for the two strands to "unzip" temporarily. Choose which bonding type is most appropriate for holding the strands together in this way.

A) ionic bonding
B) polar covalent bonding
C) hydrogen bonding
D) non-polar covalent bonding

C) hydrogen bonding

Lithium has an atomic number of 3. How many electrons are there in the outermost (valence) shell?

A) one B) two C) three D) zero

A) one

ATP → ADP + Pi is an example of a(n) ________ reaction.

A) reversible
B) synthesis
C) exchange
D) decomposition

D) decomposition

An acid with a pH of 6 has ________ hydrogen ions than pure water.

A) 10-fold more
B) 100-fold more
C) 10-fold fewer
D) 100-fold fewer

A) 10-fold more

A patient is hyperventilating. The "blowing off" of excessive carbon dioxide causes a decrease in blood H+ concentration. How can the carbonic acid-bicarbonate buffer system function to correct this imbalance?

CO2 + H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3-

A) H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and raise pH
B) HCO3- binds with H+ to form H2CO3 and raise pH
C) H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and lower pH
D) HCO3- binds with H+ to form H2CO3 and lower pH

C) H2CO3 dissociates to form more H+ and lower pH

Forming glycogen as energy storage in the liver is an example of ________.

A) oxidation B) anabolism C) exergonic D) catabolism

B) anabolism

Salivary amylase is an enzyme produced by the salivary glands that breaks down carbohydrates. What will happen to this enzyme as it follows the food into the stomach where the pH drops to 2.5?

A) The enzyme will continue to function as it remains unchanged in chemical reactions.
B) The enzyme will assume an alternate form and catalyze additional reactions.
C) The enzyme will denature but retain its function.
D) The enzyme will denature and become inactive.

D) The enzyme will denature and become inactive.

With a family history of cardiovascular disease, which toast spread would be considered the most "heart healthy?"

A) margarine containing trans fats
B) olive oil
C) butter containing butterfat
D) lard (pig fat)

B) olive oil

Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

A) amino acid; protein
B) monosaccharide; carbohydrate
C) nucleotide; nucleic acid
D) eicosanoid; triglyceride

D) eicosanoid; triglyceride

Starch is the stored carbohydrate in plants, while ________ is the stored carbohydrate in animals.

A) glycogen
B) cellulose
C) glucose
D) triglyceride

A) glycogen

How many phosphates would AMP have attached to it?

A) two B) three C) one D) none

C) one

Tendons are strong, rope-like structures that connect skeletal muscle to bone. Which of the following proteins would provide strength to a tendon?

A) actin
B) collagen
C) molecular chaperone
D) albumin

B) collagen

Phospholipids make up most of the lipid part of the cell membrane. Since water exists on both the outside and inside of a cell, which of the following phospholipid arrangements makes the most sense?

A) two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the non-polar tails facing out on both sides
B) a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing outside the cell
C) two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides
D) a single layer of phospholipids with the polar heads facing inside the cell

C) two back-to-back phospholipid layers with the polar heads facing out on both sides

What type of chemical bond can form between an atom with 11 protons and an atom with 17 protons?

A) non-polar covalent
B) polar covalent
C) hydrogen
D) ionic

D) ionic

Chapter 2 Quiz multiple choice - Subjecto.com (2024)

FAQs

What is the best answer to guess on a multiple choice test? ›

Most people (and tutors) tell students that, if they have no idea on a question, to just guess answer choice “C” — the middle answer on most multiple choice tests. That's fine advice if “C” is equally likely to be correct, which is not the case on the the last 10 questions of the ACT Math section.

Is there an app that can answer multiple choice questions? ›

Socratic by Google on the App Store.

How to pass a multiple choice test without knowing anything? ›

Here are a few of Poundstone's tactics for outsmarting any multiple-choice test:
  1. Ignore conventional wisdom. ...
  2. Look at the surrounding answers. ...
  3. Choose the longest answer. ...
  4. Eliminate the outliers.
Jun 26, 2015

What percentage of multiple choice questions are C? ›

Remember, the expected likelihood of each option being correct is 25%. And on tests with five choices (say, A, B, C, D, and E), E was the most commonly correct answer (23%). C was the least (17%).

Why is C always the answer? ›

The idea that C is the best answer to choose when guess-answering a question on a multiple choice test rests on the premise that ACT answer choices are not truly randomized. In other words, the implication is that answer choice C is correct more often than any other answer choice.

What is the trick for multiple choice questions? ›

How to ace multiple choice tests
  • Read very carefully. Take the time to carefully read each question and answer choice. ...
  • Come up with your own answer. ...
  • Look for common types of wrong answers. ...
  • Eliminate answers in two rounds. ...
  • Do not obsess over your choices. ...
  • Manage your time. ...
  • Answer every question.
Nov 15, 2022

How do you find multiple choice answers? ›

  1. Read the entire question. ...
  2. Answer it in your mind first. ...
  3. Use the process of elimination. ...
  4. True or false test. ...
  5. Look for answers hidden in questions. ...
  6. Select the best answer. ...
  7. Answer the questions you know first.
  8. Pay attention to these words.
Apr 5, 2023

What is the website for multiple choice questions? ›

mcqquestions.net is the best site for competitive exams. It includes Various Exams Questions Like UPSC, SSC CGL, SSC CHSL, SSC CPO, SSC MTS, SSC GD, SSC JE, Gate, Railway, Banking, State AE/JE and many more Exams.

How do you study for a multiple choice quiz? ›

Preparing for multiple choice exams
  1. Self-test with practice example problems in multiple choice format. ...
  2. Use the practice test as a study tool. ...
  3. Use effective study strategies as you prepare for your exam. ...
  4. Space out your studying over a longer period of time and break it into smaller study sessions.

What are the odds of guessing on a multiple choice test? ›

For every question, there are two outcomes: Either you answer correctly or you don't. If you pick a random answer, the probability of guessing the right answer is one out of four, 1/4, or 0.25. Consequently, the probability of guessing wrong is a lot higher at 3/4 or 0.75.

Are multiple choice tests easier or harder? ›

Many students think of multiple choice tests as “easy” tests, but the truth is, they can be very difficult. From “none of the above” and “all of the above” questions to the shorter amount of time many teachers allot for taking multiple choice tests, these tests can be much more challenging than students expect.

How can I pass a test every time? ›

Follow these study tips to make your best grade!
  1. Get informed. Don't walk into your test unprepared for what you will face. ...
  2. Think like your teacher. ...
  3. Make your own study aids. ...
  4. Practice for the inevitable. ...
  5. Study every day. ...
  6. Cut out the distractions. ...
  7. Divide big concepts from smaller details. ...
  8. Don't neglect the “easy” stuff.

How many answers should a multiple choice question have? ›

Research shows that three-choice items are about as effective as four or five-choice items, mainly because it is challenging to develop plausible distractors. Make sure there is only one best answer. Avoid having two or more correct options, but one is “more” accurate than the others.

How many ways can a multiple choice test be answered? ›

Calculation.

And there are 5 questions i.e., each of the 5 question has 4 choices. By the Fundamental Counting Principle, there are 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 × 4 = 1024 different ways a student can answer the five questions.

Is it possible to get a 0 on a multiple choice test? ›

It cannot be 0%, because then you would have a 25% chance of answering correctly. It cannot be anything else, because then you would have a 0% chance of answering correctly. There's nothing remarkable about a multiple choice questions with no correct answers. The concept of zero is solely an invention.

What is the best letter to pick on the multiple choice test? ›

It's best to pick one letter and guess with the same letter throughout the test. It statistically improves the chances of guessing more right. Remember, “When in doubt, pick C!” It doesn't have to be C. It just has to be the same letter every time.

How do I stop second guessing myself on a test? ›

Second guessing:

If you work through the exam calmly and methodically, you can avoid second guessing yourself. Once you have committed to an answer, don't go back and change it unless you can identify a good reason to reject your original selection.

How to get a 100 on a test? ›

5 Proven Tips on How to Score 100 Marks in Math Exams
  1. Strategizing and Time Management. ...
  2. Practice With Mock Tests. ...
  3. Create a Formula Notebook. ...
  4. Positive Attitude. ...
  5. Strategies to Follow During the Exam.
Mar 29, 2022

How long does it take to answer a multiple choice question? ›

Multiple Choice questions - 1 minute to 1 ½ minutes per question. This also assumes that computations for multiple choice questions are not required. Computational questions, may require additional time.

Do multiple choice questions have multiple answers? ›

Multiple choice questions are fundamental survey questions which provides respondents with multiple answer options. Primarily, multiple choice questions can have single select or multi select answer options.

What is the best letter to guess on the SAT? ›

Guess any letter for any question. It doesn't matter if you guess A,B,A,B or A,A,A,A or any variation. Your expected number of correct answers are equal—actually, you'll actually do sliiightly better by guessing randomly on every question.

Is multiple choice one answer? ›

A multiple-choice select one question type is a type of question where the respondent is asked to select one answer option from the given list of choices. Typically, the multiple-choice question consists of a stem, key, and distractors.

How can I get answers to my questions? ›

Answers
  • Answers.com. User-powered question and answer platform. ...
  • Ask a Librarian. Online reference desk service from the Library of Congress. ...
  • Brainly. Post questions to a community of millions of students and teachers. ...
  • Chegg Study. ...
  • Dummies. ...
  • eHow. ...
  • PolitiFact. ...
  • Quora.

What are the 3 questions every website should answer? ›

If your website is selling a product or service, it needs to answer three fundamental questions in order to connect with your customer: What do you offer? Why should they buy from you? How do they buy it?

How do you grade multiple choice tests quickly? ›

How to grade multiple choice answer sheets quickly by hand.
  1. Step 1 – Bubble in the correct answers on your answer sheet.
  2. Step 2 – Use your blade and ruler to cut a straight line as close to the bubbles as possible. ...
  3. Step 3 – Stick your hole punch through the slits you have created and punch those bubbles out!
Feb 27, 2019

How do I study for a quiz exam? ›

These 5 study tips can help you take tests with confidence.
  1. Start Studying in School. Studying for tests and quizzes actually starts way before you even know you'll have a test. ...
  2. Plan Your Study Time. ...
  3. Study Based on the Type of Test You're Taking. ...
  4. Resist the Urge to Procrastinate. ...
  5. Start a Study Group.

What is most commonly the most common multiple choice test answer? ›

True or False

The “True” or “False” questions are some of the most commonly used multiple-choice questions. It includes the stem (question or statement) and two answer options – True and False.

Why are some people bad at multiple choice tests? ›

Lack of understanding: Multiple-choice questions often require a good understanding of the subject matter. If you haven't fully understood the concepts or haven't studied enough, you might struggle with answering the questions correctly.

Why are multiple choice tests so hard? ›

A multiple-choice question is not open to additional solutions besides those provided among the existing answer choices, so a student cannot demonstrate an alternative yet equally plausible answer. Multiple choice tests do not allow students to demonstrate their higher order thinking process.

Why is multiple-choice so easy? ›

"Multiple-choice items can be easier than open-ended questions asking the same thing. This is because it is harder to recall an answer than to recognize it." The level of difficulty of multiple-choice questions may vary greatly, of course.

Why are some people good at multiple-choice? ›

Research shows that what makes these people so good at taking tests is likely a mix of: Low test-taking anxiety which allows them to perform better in the moment. Well-informed schemas that provide greater context and allow them to make more educated assumptions (guesses) especially when the test is multiple choice.

Which test is most difficult? ›

In the ranking, the IIT JEE test is ranked first in India and second in the globe.
  • List of Top 10 Toughest Exam in the World Overview. ...
  • Gaokao. ...
  • IIT-JEE. ...
  • Mensa. ...
  • GRE (Graduate Record Examination) ...
  • CFA (Chartered Financial Analyst) ...
  • CCIE (Cisco Certified Internetworking Expert) ...
  • GATE (Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering, India)
May 19, 2023

What causes you to fail a test? ›

Common reasons for exam failure include poor preparation, time management, and understanding of the concepts. Distractions, anxiety, and health issues can also lead to failure. Failures are part and parcel of life. It should be used constructively to prepare better for the exam.

Is 4 days enough to study for an exam? ›

Ideally, studying should start at least five days in advance of the exam to allow students an ample amount of time to go over course concepts and materials, and reach out to their instructor or peers if they find they have any questions.

How many times can I fail my test? ›

If you fail the drive test 3 times, you will be required to reapply and pay all applicable application fees.

What's the best letter to guess on a test? ›

C or H are right (and wrong) as often as any other answer choice. The only guess letter you don't want to use when you are completely guessing is E or K because they only show up on the math test.

What is the probability of passing a multiple choice test by guessing? ›

For every question, there are two outcomes: Either you answer correctly or you don't. If you pick a random answer, the probability of guessing the right answer is one out of four, 1/4, or 0.25. Consequently, the probability of guessing wrong is a lot higher at 3/4 or 0.75.

How do you guess answers in multiple choice math questions? ›

Eliminate the highest and lowest options. Certain questions have answers that are closely related or almost identical, except for one detail. This should be your clue to choose one of the two similar answers. The similar choices cannot both be correct, but either of them may be the correct answer.

Is it better to guess the same letter? ›

In truth, you have a higher likelihood of getting questions right by guessing the same letter every time than by skipping around. But why? The reason is twofold. For one, using a guessing letter saves you time and ensures a random guess.

How do you get an A on a test? ›

Follow these study tips to make your best grade!
  1. Get informed. Don't walk into your test unprepared for what you will face. ...
  2. Think like your teacher. ...
  3. Make your own study aids. ...
  4. Practice for the inevitable. ...
  5. Study every day. ...
  6. Cut out the distractions. ...
  7. Divide big concepts from smaller details. ...
  8. Don't neglect the “easy” stuff.

How do I choose the right answer for a test? ›

  1. Read the entire question. ...
  2. Answer it in your mind first. ...
  3. Use the process of elimination. ...
  4. True or false test. ...
  5. Look for answers hidden in questions. ...
  6. Select the best answer. ...
  7. Answer the questions you know first.
  8. Pay attention to these words.
Apr 5, 2023

What is a trick question on a test? ›

countable noun. If someone asks you a trick question, they ask you a question which is very difficult to answer, for example, because there is a hidden difficulty or because the answer that seems obvious is not the correct one.

What is most commonly the most common multiple-choice test answer? ›

True or False

The “True” or “False” questions are some of the most commonly used multiple-choice questions. It includes the stem (question or statement) and two answer options – True and False.

What is the ideal number of options in a multiple-choice test? ›

Textbook writers often recommend four or five options per multiple-choice item, and most, if not all, testing programs in the United States also employ four or five options.

What is the scoring method for multiple-choice? ›

Scores may be computed as the sum of the number of correct answers, or the sum of the number of incorrect answers. Incorrect answers are only counted for those items having a correct answer indicated on the key. The absence of a response to an item is not counted as an incorrect answer.

How do you study for a multiple choice exam? ›

Preparing for multiple choice exams
  1. Self-test with practice example problems in multiple choice format. ...
  2. Use the practice test as a study tool. ...
  3. Use effective study strategies as you prepare for your exam. ...
  4. Space out your studying over a longer period of time and break it into smaller study sessions.

What letter is the most common answer? ›

E is everywhere. In an analysis of all 240,000 entries in the Concise Oxford English Dictionary, OED editors found that the letter E appears in approximately 11% of all words in the common English vocabulary, about 6,000 more words than the runner-up letter, A.

What is the rule of guess word? ›

One player (or more) has a word - either a word on a card, or a word they've come up with themselves. They must give clues to their team, or all the other players, who must try to guess what that word is. There are usually some sort of communications limits on the clues that the clue-giver(s) can give.

Should you leave answer blank on the SAT? ›

You may be happy to learn that wrong answers won't count against you on either the ACT or SAT. Students will be awarded points for each correct answer with no points taken away for any incorrect ones. This is why never leaving an answer blank on your test is so important.

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